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Jul 30, 2023 at 13:10 comment added Sextus Empiricus @Titti are you saying that this process is weak Markov?
Jul 30, 2023 at 13:08 comment added Sextus Empiricus @Titti "to check the weak Markov property you only need to work with two fixed times s<t at the time" Shouldn't the Markov property satisfy the check for all s<t? Maybe one can define the check as something occuring at two points at the time, but the check should still be repeated for any time points and not just two.
Jul 29, 2023 at 23:53 comment added No-one @SextusEmpiricus I think that the point here is that to check the weak Markov property you only need to work with two fixed times $s<t$ at the time, so you can do that trick. If you were to change the kernel for all times, then you would get a BM with absorption at $0$ as you say. In facts, this is exactly why the process doesn't satisfy the strong Markov property, since we can consider a stopping time $T$ with uncountable range such that $X_T=0$ (for example $T=$"first time the process crosses $0$").
Jul 29, 2023 at 14:22 comment added Sextus Empiricus @Titti I don't follow how that transition kernel follows from W being a standard Brownian motion. If $W_{t+1}|W_t \sim \text{constant}(0)$ when $W_t = 0$, then don't we have instead a Brownian motion with an absorption state at zero?
Jul 29, 2023 at 13:10 comment added No-one @SextusEmpiricus I don't think so because if $W$ is a BM then for all $t$ $\mathbb{P}(W_t=0)=0$, so we can say $W_{t+1}|W_t$ is distributed as $N(W_t,1)$ if $W_t\neq 0$ and as the $0$ constant if $W_t=0$. Note that the same transition kernel also works when $Y$ is the $0$ process, and hence it works for any process $X$ constructed by "mixing" $W$ and $Y$.
Nov 17, 2020 at 8:03 comment added Sextus Empiricus Isn't the issue that makes that this process does not satisfy the strong Markov property an issue that makes that it also does not satisfy the 'regular' Markov property?
Dec 9, 2018 at 13:39 comment added George Lowther Ok, but by a slight modification, you can let the starting position $x$ be random. Say, $\mathbb{P}(X_0=0)=\mathbb{P}(X_0=1)=1/2$. Then, if $\tau$ is the first time at which $X$ hits zero, we do not have $\mathbb{P}(\cdots\vert F_{\le\tau})=\mathbb{P}(\cdots\vert X_\tau)$ as $X_\tau=0$ generates the trivial sigma-algebra but $F_{\le\tau}$ includes the event $\{X_0=0\}$ which tells us whether $X$ is stuck at 0 or not.
Nov 18, 2018 at 12:23 comment added Taro Tokyo This is only a good example if we consider the semigroup version of Markov property. For the version $\mathbb{P}( \cdots | F_{ \le \tau}) = \mathbb{P}( \cdots | X_{\tau}) $, the strong Markov property still holds.
Oct 28, 2010 at 11:46 vote accept Simon Lyons
Oct 27, 2010 at 17:24 history answered George Lowther CC BY-SA 2.5