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Jul 5, 2023 at 1:13 vote accept Sidharth Ghoshal
Jan 11, 2023 at 4:28 answer added user44143 timeline score: 8
Jan 11, 2023 at 2:38 history became hot network question
Jan 10, 2023 at 22:54 answer added Ali Enayat timeline score: 12
Jan 10, 2023 at 19:05 comment added Sidharth Ghoshal Well “thing” also has a semantic meaning so we might invent some new sentence but actually that sentence is equivalent to something in the original real closed field. Ex: if “thing” was a new relation that was identical to the $<$ relation. But that case is obvious “thing” could seem like it’s new but really it’s not. I might even say we know “thing” is different BECAUSE the higher runtime of decidability tells us so.
Jan 10, 2023 at 18:48 comment added Noah Schweber I think this is a good question, but I'm a bit confused by the phrasing: "AND we are able to prove new sentences which were not expressible before" seems a trivial condition. You're talking about theories of the form $Th(\mathbb{R};+,\times, [thing])$ for some new relation/function $[thing]$, right? In that case, you'll trivially be able to prove lots of newly-expressible things in this theory, since any theory of such a form is complete.
Jan 10, 2023 at 18:43 history edited Sidharth Ghoshal CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 10, 2023 at 18:38 history asked Sidharth Ghoshal CC BY-SA 4.0