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Jan 9, 2023 at 1:14 comment added Tom Goodwillie No, I think the homotopy axiom is okay. And I'm sure that $H_kQ_\bullet$ is $\oplus_{n\ge 0} H_{k-n}$. It might be fun and instructive to think of a simple reason why.
Jan 8, 2023 at 22:12 comment added André Henriques I would be surprised is this satisfied the homotopy axiom: two continuous maps $f,g:X\to Y$ that are homotopic induce the same map at the level of homology.
S Jan 8, 2023 at 20:44 review First questions
Jan 8, 2023 at 23:09
S Jan 8, 2023 at 20:44 history asked Linda CC BY-SA 4.0