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Timeline for Poincaré duality

Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0

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Jan 4, 2023 at 20:27 history edited Victor CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 4, 2023 at 16:49 answer added Connor Malin timeline score: 5
Jan 4, 2023 at 16:22 comment added Jim Conant Yeah, I was just thinking that it wasn't a manifold of the appropriate kind, but should have thought further about it!
Jan 4, 2023 at 8:05 comment added Aleksandar Milivojević @JimConant I’m getting that it works for spheres minus finitely many points. E.g. the one point compactification of a two-sphere minus two points has the homotopy type of a two-sphere wedge a circle. So we have 1,1,0 on the LHS and 0,1,1 on the RHS. (edit: sorry, @AchimKrause’s comment appeared while I was writing this)
Jan 4, 2023 at 8:01 comment added Achim Krause For a sphere minus finitely many points it looks ok, doesn't it? The version with homology and cohomology swapped (i.e. $H_q(M) \cong \widetilde{H}^{n-q}(M^+)$) is usual Poincaré duality combined with the observation that, if the extra point in the $1$-point compactification has a contractible neighbourhood basis, cohomology with compact support agrees with this reduced cohomology. And for $M$ finite type, there shouldn't be any problems dualizing this.
Jan 4, 2023 at 5:53 history edited Daniele Tampieri CC BY-SA 4.0
Minor Math Jaxing
Jan 4, 2023 at 3:38 history became hot network question
Jan 4, 2023 at 2:55 comment added Jim Conant Or even a sphere minus more than one point.
Jan 3, 2023 at 22:51 comment added Ryan Budney I suppose it fails for essentially the same reason when $M= \mathbb{Z}$.
Jan 3, 2023 at 22:29 vote accept Victor
Jan 3, 2023 at 22:29
Jan 3, 2023 at 21:39 history edited Victor CC BY-SA 4.0
edited body
Jan 3, 2023 at 20:47 comment added Ryan Budney It fails for $M = S^1 \setminus C$ where $C$ is a Cantor set in $S^1$.
Jan 3, 2023 at 20:11 review Close votes
Jan 8, 2023 at 3:09
Jan 3, 2023 at 19:49 comment added mme @IgorBelegradek OP specifies that M should be orientable (otherwise probably the LHS should be taken with $w_1$-twisted coefficients).
Jan 3, 2023 at 19:44 comment added Igor Belegradek If $M$ is an open Moebius band, then $M^+=RP^2$, and your formula fails for $q=1$.
S Jan 3, 2023 at 19:16 history suggested Evgeny Kuznetsov CC BY-SA 4.0
tipo at the end corrected
Jan 3, 2023 at 19:08 review Suggested edits
S Jan 3, 2023 at 19:16
Jan 3, 2023 at 19:07 review Suggested edits
Jan 3, 2023 at 19:07
Jan 3, 2023 at 19:04 history asked Victor CC BY-SA 4.0