No, in dimension N > 1$N>1$, it does not have to be Borel measurable. E.g., in 2 dimensions, consider, a non Borel measurable subset of the reals S$S$, and let A$A$ be the union of closed unit balls centered at points (x,0)$(x,0)$ for x ∈ Sall $x\in S$. The intersection of A$A$ with
ℝ×{1} $\mathbb{R}\times \{1\}$ is the non-Borel set S×{1}$S \times \{1\}$, so A$A$ is not Borel.
On the other hand, for N = 1$N=1$, any union of non-trivial closed intervals is Borel-measurable. If A$A$ is such a union and B$B$ is the union of the open interiors, then it can be seen that A$A$ is just the union of B$B$ with (at most countably many) endpoints of connected components of B$B$.
Reduce the problem to that of balls with at least some positive radius r$r$ and within some bounded region. To do this, suppose that S$S$ is the set of closed balls and Sr$S_r$ denotes the balls of radius at least r$r$ and with center no further than r$r$ from the origin. Then,
$$
\cup S=\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty\left(\cup S_{1/n}\right).
$$
As the measurable sets are closed under countable unions, it is enough to show that ∪Sr$\cup S_r$ is Lebesgue measurable for each r > 0$r>0$. So, we can assume that all balls are of radius at least r$r$ and are within some bounded distance of the origin.
Let $A$ be the union of the closed balls, and $B\subseteq A$ be the union of their interiors. This is open so, by second countability, is a union of countably many open balls of radius at least r$r$. Also, $A$ lies between $B$ and its closure $\bar B$.
Show that the boundary $\bar B\setminus B$ of $B$ has zero measure. If we scale up the radius of each of the countable sequence of open balls used to obtain $B$ by a factor $1+\epsilon$ to get the new set $B^\prime$ then $\mu(B^\prime)\le(1+\epsilon)^N\mu(B)$. Showing this is the tricky part, but it does follow from convexity of the balls: If the balls have radius rk$r_k$ and centres xk$x_k$, then consider the sets
$$
B_t=\bigcup_{k=1}^\infty B(r_k,tx_k)
$$
for real t$t$, so that B1 = B$B_1=B$. The function $t\mapsto\mu(B_t)$ is increasing in $t\ge0$*. Also, $B^\prime= (1+\epsilon)B_{1/(1+\epsilon)}$ giving,
$$
\mu(B^\prime)=(1+\epsilon)^{N}\mu(B_{1/(1+\epsilon)})\le(1+\epsilon)^{N}\mu(B)
$$
as claimed. As $\bar B\subseteq B^\prime$ we get $\mu(\bar B\setminus B)\le((1+\epsilon)^N-1)\mu(B)$ which can be made as small as we like by choosing ε small.