Skip to main content
13 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Dec 27, 2022 at 14:42 comment added S Argyros I do not claim that I have proved that this is a counterexample. it seems to me that if someone wants to think then the simplest case is the subspaces generated by uncountable many branches.
Dec 27, 2022 at 14:28 comment added S Argyros We define the space $X$ through a norming set $W$. We consider a partial order $\preceq $ which induces a dyadic tree on $N$ .Denote by $s,t$ the finite segment of the tree and by $\sigma , \tau $ its branches. Then W is the minimal subset of $c_{00} $ containing all finite segments of the tree and it is closed in $(1/2, S^M )$ operation.This means that it includes $1/2 \sum_{i=1} ^{n}f_i $ with $\{f_i\}$ belond to $W$, have disjoint support and the min of their support is a Schreier set. The space $X^*$ is generated by all singletons and all branches.
Dec 27, 2022 at 13:17 comment added S Argyros Bill,I agree with you that we should look for a negative answer. I thought a little in this direction and I think that the following is a good candidate. First there are James Tree spaces $X$ not containing $\ell_1$, with a boundedly complete basis, non separable dual such that $X^*/X_* $ is isomorphic to $c_0 (2^N )$. I believe that every non separable subspace of $X^*$ intersects the subspace $X_*$. I shall add in a next comment some more informations on the space X and its dual. There are such examples in the literature like the non separable HI in the Memoirs paper.But there are simpler
Dec 27, 2022 at 0:58 comment added Bill Johnson Spyros, Lindenstrauss proved that every subspace of a reflexive space has a quasi-complement (actually, something more general than that), so any example that gives a negative answer to your question must be non reflexive.
Dec 26, 2022 at 11:06 comment added S Argyros After thinking a little more I understood that there is no non separable extension of Mazur theorem since there are non separable HI spaces. However the question in my previous comment remains open.
Dec 25, 2022 at 10:38 comment added S Argyros It seems to me that the answer to the question could be positive if there exists a nonseparable extension of Mazur theorem. Is there something like this?
Dec 25, 2022 at 10:31 comment added S Argyros I return to the main step of answering the question. Namely for any $V_0$ closed subspace of $V$ such that space $V/ V_0 $ is of infinite dimension then there exists a closed inf. dim. subspace $W$ such that $V_0 \cap W =0 $.My question is the following. Assume that the space $V/V_0 $ is non separable.Is it possible the subspace $W$ be chosen be nonseparable. For a separable $W$ , as Bill explained , it is enough to find a Schauder basic sequence $(x_n)$ such that their biorthogonals $(f_n)$ belong to $ V_{0} ^ {\perp} $. For this we can also use a variant of the proof of Mazur Thm.
Dec 24, 2022 at 22:58 history edited Nik Weaver CC BY-SA 4.0
added 57 characters in body
Dec 24, 2022 at 16:04 comment added Nik Weaver Nice! Thank you, Bill and Spyros.
Dec 24, 2022 at 16:03 vote accept Nik Weaver
Dec 24, 2022 at 16:03 history edited Nik Weaver CC BY-SA 4.0
added 184 characters in body
Dec 24, 2022 at 9:20 comment added S Argyros Thanks Bill. It was clear to me that the critical point in my previous comment was to determine the subspace 𝑊 . Your explanation is clear and more correct from what I had in mind.
Dec 23, 2022 at 23:20 history answered Bill Johnson CC BY-SA 4.0