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Dec 20, 2022 at 10:59 vote accept Sam Sanders
Dec 20, 2022 at 10:08 answer added Elliot Glazer timeline score: 5
Dec 20, 2022 at 6:54 comment added Patrick Lutz @ElliotGlazer You're right; I misunderstood what you meant by "coded by a real" in your first comment.
Dec 20, 2022 at 5:15 comment added Elliot Glazer @PatrickLutz If $\mathbb{R}$ is a countable union of countable sets then every subset of $\mathbb{R}$ is also a countable union of countable sets. My point is that there is then $|\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{R})|$ many functions in Baire class 3 so they can't all be coded by a real.
Dec 20, 2022 at 5:08 comment added Asaf Karagila @PatrickLutz: Related.
Dec 20, 2022 at 4:52 comment added Patrick Lutz @ElliotGlazer that doesn't quite work. For example, if the countable union of countable sets is all of $\mathbb{R}$ then the indicator function is effectively Baire class 3 so there's no contradiction there. However, using the effective perfect set theorem you can get a contradiction if you have a countable union of countable sets whose cardinality is neither countable nor continuum.
Dec 20, 2022 at 3:58 comment added Elliot Glazer @AsafKaragila It's easy to get a negative result for Baire 3. The indicator function of any countable union of countable sets is Baire 3, so if $\mathbb{R}$ is a countable union of countable sets, not all such functions will be codable by a real.
Dec 19, 2022 at 18:25 comment added Asaf Karagila I wouldn't be too surprised if the answer is positive, but then again, it might be that AC comes into play only for Baire 3, or Baire $\omega$. These things can be finicky.
Dec 19, 2022 at 16:23 history asked Sam Sanders CC BY-SA 4.0