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Dec 22, 2022 at 20:56 comment added threeautumn @RobertBryant Yes, it is unit sphere of Finsler norm and its interior.
Dec 22, 2022 at 14:39 comment added Robert Bryant Is the convex body $M$ the set of vectors that satisfy $\phi(v)\le 1$? Otherwise, you haven't said how $M$ is related to anything else, so I'm guess that this is what you mean. Let me know if you mean something different.
Dec 22, 2022 at 12:11 history edited threeautumn CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 22, 2022 at 11:57 comment added threeautumn @RobertBryant Also, this problem originates from my thesis of isometric embedding $f$ of second-order flat Finsler metric into Banach-Minkowski space. S(v, w) is an analog of second fundamental form, using projection of $d_p^2 f(v, w)$ into some fixed vector $\tau$. $Q(v, w) = d_p^2 f(v, w) - S(v, w) \tau $. First-order flatness implies that $d_p \varphi(d_p^2 f(v, w)) = 0$. So $d_p \varphi(Q(v, w)) = 0$ if $S(v, w) = 0$. We proved that 3-dim second-order flat Finsler manifold embedded into 4-dim Banach-Minkowski space has degenerate second fundamental form. But not sure for higher dim.
Dec 22, 2022 at 11:51 comment added threeautumn @RobertBryant Yes, you are correct. I try to reformulate it but it does not work. It should be below: If $S(v, w) = 0$, then $Q(v, w)$ is tangent to level surface of Finsler norm $\varphi$. It does not matter whether basis lies on convex body $M$. Secondly, yes, $Q$ cannot be identically zero. The point is that if it is zero for a zero measurable set, then by continuity, Kakutani still holds.
Dec 22, 2022 at 11:48 history edited threeautumn CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 21, 2022 at 15:59 comment added Robert Bryant There's something missing in your description of your problem. For example, you don't assume any connection between $S$ and $M$ or put any condition on $Q$. If you let $S$ and $M$ be arbitrary and just take $Q(v,w) = 0$ for all $v$ and $w$, then your hypotheses are satisfied but $M$ need not be an ellipsoid. (This is a counterexample to your claim even in dimension $3$.) Moreover, since there is no connection between $S$ and $M$ assumed, for the basis $\{e_1,e_2\}$ that you first construct in your 'proof', there is no reason to suppose that $e_1$ and $e_2$ to belong to $M$.
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S Dec 19, 2022 at 8:21 review First questions
Dec 19, 2022 at 8:28
S Dec 19, 2022 at 8:21 history asked threeautumn CC BY-SA 4.0