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Oct 29, 2010 at 15:54 history edited Mark Meckes CC BY-SA 2.5
Corrected "expectation", added a missing space
Oct 29, 2010 at 15:32 answer added Did timeline score: 2
Oct 28, 2010 at 14:30 comment added Did 1) If $X_k\le x$ almost surely, then $0 < S_N\le x$ almost surely, hence $S_N$ is indeed integrable. 2) I don't understand why $S_N$ should take a finite number of values in general (this seems to be the case if and only if $p$ is rational). 3) If $p=1/(k+1)$, then $S_N$ is uniformly distributed on the integers from $1$ to $k$, in particular $E(S_N)=(k+1)/2$. For instance, if $p=1/3$, then $S_N$ is uniform on $1$ and $2$, hence $E(S_N)=3/2$.
Oct 27, 2010 at 17:04 comment added Michael Lugo OK. I meant that $S_n$ is integer-valued for all $n$, and so $S_N$ always takes positive integer values.
Oct 27, 2010 at 15:13 answer added user6096 timeline score: 5
Oct 27, 2010 at 8:24 comment added Ewan Delanoy @JBL : For $p=\frac{1}{3}$ I can show that the expectancy is greater than 1.
Oct 27, 2010 at 8:23 comment added Ewan Delanoy @ Shai : corrected the typo, thanks.
Oct 27, 2010 at 8:22 history edited Ewan Delanoy CC BY-SA 2.5
added 476 characters in body
Oct 26, 2010 at 16:37 comment added Michael Lugo JBL: In the case $p = 1/3$, $X_k$ is $-1$ with probability $2/3$ and $2$ with probability $1/3$. So $S_n$ is positive-integer-valued for all $n$. In particular $S_N$ only takes the values $1$ or $2$, and therefore has expectation at least $1$.
Oct 26, 2010 at 15:05 comment added Shai Covo There is an obvious typo: if $p$ is of the form $1−1/k$ where $k$ is an integer, then $S_N$ is equal to $1/(k−1)$
Oct 26, 2010 at 13:12 history asked Ewan Delanoy CC BY-SA 2.5