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Dec 15, 2022 at 10:01 answer added Fedor Petrov timeline score: 5
Dec 15, 2022 at 9:52 comment added Vladimir Dotsenko @Z.M Ah, I see - you suggest to expand each $q^\alpha$ around $q=1$. Yes, that is a perfectly valid point, thanks!
Dec 15, 2022 at 9:47 comment added Z. M Hopefully I am not too mistaken. The $q$-binomial coefficient $\binom\alpha k_q$ makes sense for formal variables $\alpha$, and is defined in a similar fashion to the usual one: $\binom\alpha k_q=[\alpha][\alpha-1]\cdots[\alpha-k+1]/[k]!$ where $[\alpha]=(1-q^\alpha)/(1-q)\in\mathbb Z[\alpha][\![q-1]\!]$.
Dec 15, 2022 at 9:30 vote accept Vladimir Dotsenko
Dec 15, 2022 at 9:26 answer added Neil Strickland timeline score: 6
Dec 15, 2022 at 9:19 comment added Vladimir Dotsenko @Z.M can you elaborate? I mean, these are not quite polynomials in $a,b$ as written.
Dec 15, 2022 at 9:15 comment added Z. M I would expect that this identity is true without assuming that $a,b$ are integers, namely, it is an identity in $\mathbb Z[a,b][\![q-1]\!]$.
Dec 15, 2022 at 9:03 history asked Vladimir Dotsenko CC BY-SA 4.0