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Dec 11, 2022 at 19:51 comment added Jiaji Huang Thank you both! I guess the original question stems from here. In fact, I was trying to make sense of this question for kernel approximation in machine learning: Let $k(x, y)$ be a kernel. It is often possible to construct (random) feature maps: $\phi(x; Z)$, $\phi(y; Z)$ such that $k(x, y) = \mathbb E_Z[\phi(x; Z)^\top \phi(y; Z)]$. Here $Z$ is some random variable. But, does the following necessarily hold? ${\partial k(x, y) \over\partial x} = \mathbb E_Z [{\phi(x; Z)^\top \phi(y; Z) \over \partial x}]$
Dec 11, 2022 at 16:03 comment added Iosif Pinelis @DanieleTampieri : Thank you very much for your kind words and for your help.
Dec 11, 2022 at 14:32 comment added Daniele Tampieri You are welcome, Iosif: I follow almost all your Q&A on the MathOverflow, and I like when I can improve a bit such high quality writings.
Dec 11, 2022 at 13:30 comment added Iosif Pinelis @DanieleTampieri : Thank you for your edit and the useful information about it.
Dec 11, 2022 at 6:54 history edited Daniele Tampieri CC BY-SA 4.0
Formula hyperlinking (despite not being shown correctly in the preview, links work correctly on the whole page, for all questions and answers).
Dec 11, 2022 at 3:50 history answered Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0