Skip to main content
15 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Sep 3 at 21:52 comment added Dima Pasechnik Solutions to finitely many polynomial equations are the solutions to just one equation, the product of these finitely many ones. And it's a basic fact in characteristic 0 algebraic geometry that it's a hypersurface, it cannot contain an open ball.
Jan 2 at 16:39 comment added Paul Taylor The Bochnak-Coste-Roy book is freely downloadable here. I think this site is legitimate, but am open to correction.
Dec 10, 2022 at 15:24 comment added Paul Taylor @AndrejBauer has told me privately that Theorem 2.7.2 of "Real algebraic geometry" by Jacek Bochnak, Michel Coste and Marie-Françoise Roy (Springer, 1998, ISBN 978-3-642-08429-4) gives an explicit proof this result. It is more complicated than my attempt and I don't follow it.
Dec 10, 2022 at 14:06 comment added Paul Taylor Am I correct that the solutions to finitely many non-zero polynomial equations cannot cover an open ball?
Dec 10, 2022 at 13:59 comment added Paul Taylor @EmilJeřábek: I was hoping that you would take the challenge and not just dismiss compactness. So, we have eliminated the equation from some of the disjuncts, so let $a$ avoid (the inequalities in) those but satisfy some other equation. I think my argument eliminates another one of those.
Dec 10, 2022 at 13:55 comment added Emil Jeřábek Compactness would help if you could also show the existence of such a ball around any point $a$ that does not satisfy $\phi$.
Dec 10, 2022 at 13:42 comment added Paul Taylor @EmilJeřábek: Of course, I mean that the equations can be eliminated, and I showed that that is true for some open ball around each point. The word compactness comes to mind, but there should be algebraic ideas that get us from here to a proof. I reckon you would be a good person to do that!
Dec 10, 2022 at 13:37 comment added Emil Jeřábek Expressing $\phi$ only on the ball around $a$ is pointless. You assumed that $\phi$ was true on that ball, that’s how you chose the ball. So $\phi$ is trivially equivalent to $\top$ on the ball.
Dec 10, 2022 at 13:31 comment added Emil Jeřábek It does not contribute $\top$. It contributes $\top\land\bigwedge_jq_{i,j}>0$, that is, $\bigwedge_jq_{i,j}>0$. You need all the $p_i$ to be identically $0$ to express $\phi$ as a monotone combination of strict polynomial inequalities.
Dec 10, 2022 at 13:28 comment added Paul Taylor @EmilJeřábek: no, just one, which contributes $\top$ to a disjunction, at least within the ball. Maybe it needs more thought for the rest of the space.
Dec 10, 2022 at 13:16 comment added Emil Jeřábek All right, so one of the polynomials is identically $0$. And then what? You need all the polynomials to be identically $0$ to get the required characterization, right?
Dec 10, 2022 at 12:06 history edited Paul Taylor CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted 34 characters in body
Dec 10, 2022 at 11:10 history edited Paul Taylor CC BY-SA 4.0
added 150 characters in body
Dec 10, 2022 at 11:02 history edited Paul Taylor CC BY-SA 4.0
added 2 characters in body
Dec 10, 2022 at 10:56 history answered Paul Taylor CC BY-SA 4.0