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Dec 9, 2022 at 9:47 comment added Lukas This sounds reasonable. It should also not be hard to show that the map $TG \times TM \cong T(G \times M) \to T(G \times_H M)$ factors through $TG \times_{TH} TM$ and then a dimension argument shows that the induced map is in fact an isomorphism. I am however more interested in a (the?) reference.
Dec 8, 2022 at 20:17 comment added LSpice Aren't there (essentially by the implicit function theorem) a neighbourhood $U_H$ of $1$ in $H$ and a set $U_H'$ containing $1$ in $G$ such that $U_H \times U_H' \to G$ is a diffeomorphism onto a neighbourhood of the identity?
Dec 8, 2022 at 18:40 history asked Lukas CC BY-SA 4.0