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Nov 30, 2022 at 19:18 history edited Hermi CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 30, 2022 at 1:51 history edited Hermi CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 30, 2022 at 1:18 comment added Hermi @IosifPinelis Does this question make sense now?
Nov 30, 2022 at 1:17 history edited Hermi CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 30, 2022 at 0:42 comment added Iosif Pinelis After your last edit, the question seems to have become incomprehensible. I suggest you take time (like a few days) to think about what you actually want and then carefully present your question.
Nov 29, 2022 at 22:38 comment added Hermi @IosifPinelis So there is no anti-concentration inequality for $N(0,1/n)$ random variables?
Nov 29, 2022 at 21:42 comment added Hermi @IosifPinelis Thanks. I update my question now. Do you think that right?
Nov 29, 2022 at 21:41 history edited Hermi CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 29, 2022 at 21:15 history edited Hermi CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 29, 2022 at 21:12 comment added Iosif Pinelis What I said previously was assuming that the $X_i$'s were (i) iid $N(0,1)$ as before and (ii) independent of $A$. If (ii) fails to hold, you need to specify the dependence. As for (i), if you replace $N(0,1)$, then it should easy to show that there is no anti-concentration.
Nov 29, 2022 at 21:02 comment added Hermi @IosifPinelis Oh... I just found a issue. My $X_i\sim N(0, 1/n)$ but not $N(0,1)$.
Nov 29, 2022 at 21:01 comment added Iosif Pinelis Yes, you can remove the condition.
Nov 29, 2022 at 20:43 history edited Hermi CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 29, 2022 at 20:36 comment added Hermi @IosifPinelis Can we just take expectation on the both side?
Nov 29, 2022 at 20:29 comment added Hermi @IosifPinelis Thanks! Since $\lambda_i$ are random variables following semi-circle law, can we remove this condition probability in that inequality?
Nov 29, 2022 at 20:25 comment added Iosif Pinelis Yes, you can make this substitution.
Nov 29, 2022 at 19:58 comment added Hermi @IosifPinelis Also, how about my updated question? Thanks!
Nov 29, 2022 at 19:40 history edited Hermi CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 29, 2022 at 19:31 comment added Hermi Ok, I see! So we can take $\epsilon=1/n$, and get my second displayed inequality?
Nov 29, 2022 at 19:26 comment added Iosif Pinelis The condition $\sum_i a_i=1$ was assumed in that answer without loss of generality. The first displayed inequality in the answer holds for any $a_i>0$.
Nov 29, 2022 at 19:17 comment added Hermi @IosifPinelis If that concentration inequality is true for my case, I update my thought and questions. Do you think that works?
Nov 29, 2022 at 19:17 history edited Hermi CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 29, 2022 at 19:09 comment added Hermi @IosifPinelis I check the proof but he assume that $\sum_i a_i=1$ which is not true in my case... Can we still prove that?
Nov 29, 2022 at 19:09 history edited Hermi CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 29, 2022 at 15:01 comment added Iosif Pinelis The constant factor in the bound in the linked answer does not depend on the $a_i$'s there. So, the same bound will hold in the present case.
Nov 29, 2022 at 5:17 history asked Hermi CC BY-SA 4.0