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Nov 22, 2022 at 9:34 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 22, 2022 at 9:02 comment added Wilberd van der Kallen The map $g\mapsto L_g$ is a homomorphism.
Nov 22, 2022 at 5:41 review Close votes
Nov 27, 2022 at 3:03
Nov 22, 2022 at 5:06 comment added Laurence PW @FZaldivar thank you for your response
Nov 22, 2022 at 4:29 comment added F Zaldivar Crossposted at: math.stackexchange.com/questions/4571989/…
S Nov 22, 2022 at 4:27 history suggested Mark Schultz-Wu CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 22, 2022 at 4:20 comment added F Zaldivar The action of $G$ on itself by translation is a morphism $L_g:G\rightarrow G$ (which is only a homomorphism when $g=e$ is the neutral element of $G$) and the claim that is used by Borel is that the action $L_g$ extends to the complete curve $\overline{G}$ as a morphism $L_g:\overline{G}\rightarrow G$, which again is almost never a homomorphism.
Nov 22, 2022 at 3:14 review Suggested edits
S Nov 22, 2022 at 4:27
Nov 22, 2022 at 2:58 history asked Laurence PW CC BY-SA 4.0