Timeline for Vague convergence: confusion about the regularity of a signed Radon measure and that of its variation
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| S Nov 7, 2022 at 3:10 | history | suggested | Analyst | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
fixed typo
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| Nov 6, 2022 at 15:33 | comment | added | Analyst | Could you please have a look at this related question? Thank you so much for your detailed answer here. | |
| Nov 6, 2022 at 15:30 | comment | added | Iosif Pinelis | @Analyst : I don't think your latter comment is wrong. But what is your question now, if any? | |
| Nov 6, 2022 at 14:18 | comment | added | Analyst | But we only know that $f^\pm (\Omega \setminus U^\pm) =0$ so it's possible that $f^\pm >0$ on $U^\pm \setminus K^\pm$. Maybe I'm wrong... | |
| Nov 6, 2022 at 14:12 | comment | added | Iosif Pinelis | @Analyst : The equality there holds because $f^\pm=1$ on $K^\pm$. So, of course, the inequality $\ge$ also holds. | |
| Nov 6, 2022 at 3:22 | vote | accept | Analyst | ||
| Nov 6, 2022 at 3:04 | comment | added | Analyst | May I ask if it should be "$\ge \mu(K^+)-\mu(K^-) -\int_{U^-\setminus K^-} f^-\,d\mu$" rather than "$=\mu(K^+)-\mu(K^-) -\int_{U^-\setminus K^-} f^-\,d\mu$" in the transformation at the end? | |
| Nov 6, 2022 at 2:51 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Nov 7, 2022 at 3:10 | |||||
| Nov 6, 2022 at 1:01 | history | answered | Iosif Pinelis | CC BY-SA 4.0 |