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Nov 10, 2022 at 7:34 vote accept Caleb Briggs
Nov 6, 2022 at 8:48 comment added order This is indeed the case—the reason is that the primitive of cosine vanishes at $0$ and has (distributional) limit $0$ at infinity. I suggest you take a look at the reference I suggested where such simple examples are computed explicitly.
Nov 4, 2022 at 22:28 comment added Caleb Briggs Is there a form of the theory in which $\int_0^\infty \cos(x) = 0$? In all of the contexts for which I have looked at, the integral should be zero (for instance, Cesaro means, shifting, and smoothing all give zero).
S Nov 4, 2022 at 8:03 review First answers
Nov 4, 2022 at 8:08
S Nov 4, 2022 at 8:03 history answered order CC BY-SA 4.0