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Oct 28, 2022 at 8:05 vote accept Dominic van der Zypen
Oct 28, 2022 at 8:04 history edited Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 28, 2022 at 8:04 comment added Dominic van der Zypen Right - I want infinitely many blocks, will add this to the question description. Now I am looking forward to reading Joel's answer!
Oct 28, 2022 at 7:37 answer added Joel David Hamkins timeline score: 4
Oct 28, 2022 at 3:03 comment added bof I think "infinitely many blocks" is a necessary and sufficient condition. For sufficiency, it looks offhand like the straightforward inductive construction works.
Oct 28, 2022 at 2:53 comment added bof @Holo More generally, if such a sequence of bijections exists, the number of blocks must be infinite. This is because, for any given $k\in\omega$, for sufficiently large $n$ the numbers $\varphi_n(1),\varphi_n(2),\dots,\varphi_n(k)$ will all be in different blocks.
Oct 27, 2022 at 21:47 comment added Holo If there exists a cofinite block there is no such sequence of bijections
Oct 27, 2022 at 19:18 comment added Joel David Hamkins What I mean to say is that if there is only one block, then one will fail the uniqueness claim on $n$ in the desired property, since every $\varphi_n$ will work in this case.
Oct 27, 2022 at 19:11 comment added Joel David Hamkins What if there is just one big block? Perhaps you want to assume there are infinitely many blocks?
Oct 27, 2022 at 19:00 history asked Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 4.0