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Timeline for Convergence of a sequence

Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0

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Oct 12, 2022 at 15:53 comment added Alapan Das @Jean Legall, thanks for pointing this out. I'll think about it.
Oct 12, 2022 at 13:52 comment added Jean Legall Thanks for your reply. Intuitively I understand why you can take $b_k=1$. However, I am not sure how to argue rigorously that if you prove the case for $b_k=1$, then it also implies the same result for $b_k\to 1$. Can you explain more? How do you avoid the case Saúl RM mentioned in the comment?
Oct 12, 2022 at 13:33 history edited Alapan Das CC BY-SA 4.0
added 33 characters in body
Oct 12, 2022 at 5:53 history answered Alapan Das CC BY-SA 4.0