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Mar 15, 2023 at 18:04 vote accept Breakfastisready
Sep 25, 2022 at 21:43 comment added Breakfastisready @FranzLemmermeyer, that MO link is very useful!
Sep 25, 2022 at 20:50 comment added Claudius In this explicit form this may certainly be the case. According to Evertse's book on unit equations (see "summary"), it had been implicitely proven in an article of Siegel from 1921. But I am by no means an expert in such questions.
Sep 25, 2022 at 18:15 comment added Franz Lemmermeyer I think the finiteness result is due to Chowla; see mathoverflow.net/questions/194454/… . See also Nagell, link.springer.com/content/pdf/10.1007/BF02589556.pdf
Sep 25, 2022 at 0:46 review Low quality posts
Sep 25, 2022 at 7:19
Sep 25, 2022 at 0:29 history edited Claudius CC BY-SA 4.0
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S Sep 25, 2022 at 0:24 review First answers
Sep 25, 2022 at 0:41
S Sep 25, 2022 at 0:24 history answered Claudius CC BY-SA 4.0