Timeline for Range of $a$ such that $w \leftarrow w-a x \langle w, x \rangle$ converges almost surely?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Mar 21, 2023 at 3:33 | comment | added | Iosif Pinelis | @fedja : Oh, I see, thank you. | |
| Mar 21, 2023 at 3:00 | comment | added | fedja | @IosifPinelis Nope, it isn't. What it is based upon is that for any vector $v$ the ratio $\|(I-x\otimes x)v\|/\|v\|$ is a random variable whose distribution does not depend on $v$ and those r.v. are independent at different steps. This is a rather clever trick that reduces everything to dimension 1. | |
| Mar 21, 2023 at 1:23 | comment | added | Iosif Pinelis | It appears to me that this calculation is based on the assumption that some rotational symmetry implies that the norm of a product of matrices is the product of the norm. Is my impression mistaken? | |
| Sep 19, 2022 at 18:19 | vote | accept | Yaroslav Bulatov | ||
| Sep 19, 2022 at 17:55 | history | edited | Anthony Quas | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 14 characters in body
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| Sep 19, 2022 at 17:40 | history | answered | Anthony Quas | CC BY-SA 4.0 |