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Sep 19, 2022 at 19:17 comment added user253963 @ChristianRemling Thank you!
Sep 19, 2022 at 17:16 review Close votes
Sep 19, 2022 at 20:15
Sep 19, 2022 at 16:56 comment added Christian Remling I don't think there's anything involved here. You just multiplied both sides by $a/x^2$, which is certainly justified if $\sim$ has the standard meaning $A\sim B \iff A/B\to 1$.
Sep 19, 2022 at 16:40 comment added LSpice If you're going to \dfrac your fractions, please also \displaystyle your integrals: $\displaystyle\frac{a(x)}{x^2}\int_0^x b(\tau)\mathrm d\tau$ \displaystyle\frac{a(x)}{x^2}\int_0^x b(\tau)\mathrm d\tau looks better than $\dfrac{a(x)}{x^2}\int_0^x b(\tau)d\tau$ \dfrac{a(x)}{x^2}\int_0^x b(\tau)d\tau (though it's better not to \displaystyle titles at all). I have edited accordingly.
Sep 19, 2022 at 16:39 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
Sizing integrals like fractions; name of paper
S Sep 19, 2022 at 16:06 review First questions
Sep 19, 2022 at 20:22
S Sep 19, 2022 at 16:06 history asked user253963 CC BY-SA 4.0