Timeline for Does approximately Fréchet differentiable imply approximately Gateaux differentiable?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
10 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| S Oct 5, 2022 at 18:01 | history | bounty ended | CommunityBot | ||
| S Oct 5, 2022 at 18:01 | history | notice removed | CommunityBot | ||
| Oct 1, 2022 at 15:56 | answer | added | Piotr Hajlasz | timeline score: 2 | |
| S Sep 27, 2022 at 16:16 | history | bounty started | Sam Forster | ||
| S Sep 27, 2022 at 16:16 | history | notice added | Sam Forster | Draw attention | |
| Sep 16, 2022 at 22:02 | comment | added | Sam Forster | Sorry if I wasn't clear. The pointwise statement would be "$f$ is A.F.D. at $x$ implies $f$ is A.G.D. at $x$" vs the everywhere statement of "$f$ is A.F.D. everywhere on its domain implies $f$ is A.G.D. everywhere on its domain". If I'm still not being clear, take the difference between the statements "$f$ is $0$ at $x$ implies $f'$ is $0$ at $x$" vs "$f$ is everywhere $0$ implies $f'$ is everywhere $0$". | |
| Sep 16, 2022 at 21:03 | comment | added | Alessandro Della Corte | "In fact it is this distinction which prevents Fréchet necessarily implying Gateaux pointwise [...] Now my question is, what if we have everywhere approximately differentiable and not just pointwise?" I'm a bit confused...aren't "pointwise" and "everywhere" synonymous? For me solving pointwise an ODE, for instance, means solving it classically at every point (and not just weakly). | |
| Sep 15, 2022 at 17:40 | history | edited | Sam Forster | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 146 characters in body
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| Sep 15, 2022 at 17:29 | history | edited | Sam Forster | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Added an extra bit of definition
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| Sep 15, 2022 at 17:21 | history | asked | Sam Forster | CC BY-SA 4.0 |