Timeline for Does the (normalized) product of two independent binomial variables converge in distribution to a normal variable?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Apr 19, 2023 at 18:01 | history | edited | Michael Hardy | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
edited title
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| Sep 11, 2022 at 6:05 | vote | accept | Renel | ||
| Sep 11, 2022 at 1:56 | answer | added | Iosif Pinelis | timeline score: 1 | |
| Sep 10, 2022 at 18:02 | history | edited | Renel | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 13 characters in body
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| Sep 10, 2022 at 18:02 | comment | added | Renel | @BrendanMcKay Yes, it for $p=1/2$. Sorry I forgot that | |
| Sep 10, 2022 at 15:36 | comment | added | Brendan McKay | Your example is for $p=1/2$, right? | |
| S Sep 10, 2022 at 12:11 | review | First questions | |||
| Sep 10, 2022 at 13:32 | |||||
| S Sep 10, 2022 at 12:11 | history | asked | Renel | CC BY-SA 4.0 |