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Aug 18, 2022 at 4:33 vote accept Sebastien Palcoux
Aug 17, 2022 at 21:08 comment added Sebastien Palcoux In my comment above, $ord(g)$ should be replace by $\varphi(ord(g))$, otherwise it is just Lagrange theorem...
Aug 17, 2022 at 8:26 comment added YCor Oh, I've just mentioned this fact above (I didn't know this fact but it's a straightforward observation).
Aug 17, 2022 at 8:16 comment added Sebastien Palcoux I found a very strong result in the book your cited (Corollary 12): let $G$ be a $\mathbb{Q}$-group and let $g \in G$, then $ord(g)$ divides $|G|$. In particular, for every prime divisor $p$ of $|G|$ then $p-1$ divides $|G|$. So if $G$ is not trivial then it must be of even order.
Aug 17, 2022 at 7:42 history edited Alex B. CC BY-SA 4.0
fixed a typo, clarified an argument
Aug 17, 2022 at 7:17 history edited Alex B. CC BY-SA 4.0
added 301 characters in body
Aug 17, 2022 at 7:11 history answered Alex B. CC BY-SA 4.0