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Jul 8, 2023 at 22:05 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
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Feb 8, 2023 at 15:34 answer added David E Speyer timeline score: 1
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Aug 3, 2022 at 8:52 comment added lotuspaperboy An approximation I came up with is: $$\sum_{n=1}^N{p_nb_n\over1+b_n f}=0$$ $$\sum_{n=1}^N{p_nb_n}(1+b_nf)^{-1}=0$$ $$\sum_{n=1}^N{p_nb_n}(1-b_nf+(b_nf)^2-(b_nf)^3+(b_nf)^4-....)=0$$ Cutting things off afters the third term of each expansion and solving the polynomial gives: $$f \approx{1\over2}\left({\sum_{n=1}^Np_nb_n^2\over\sum_{n=1}^Np_nb_n^3}-\sqrt{\left({\sum_{n=1}^Np_nb_n^2\over\sum_{n=1}^Np_nb_n^3}\right)^2-4\left({\sum_{n=1}^Np_nb_n\over\sum_{n=1}^Np_nb_n^3}\right)}\right) $$ It's unwieldy but does seem to work. An exact solution would be great though!
S Aug 1, 2022 at 20:15 review First questions
Aug 2, 2022 at 6:20
S Aug 1, 2022 at 20:15 history asked lotuspaperboy CC BY-SA 4.0