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Aug 2, 2022 at 13:45 comment added skd Edited to clarify @kindasorta
Aug 2, 2022 at 13:44 history edited skd CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 2, 2022 at 11:21 comment added kindasorta Maybe one additional small question: do you know why Illusie writes, in math line 2.1.13, that if $w = \sum a_idx_i$, and $Cw = \sum c_iW^*(dx_i)$, where the $c_i\in \mathcal{O}_{X^{(p)}}$, then $F_{X/S}(c_i) = -(D_i)^{p-1}a_i$? After all, in degree 0, $C^{-1}_{X/S}$ is defined by $F_{X/S}$, so that if $C$ is inverse to it, I would imagine that $F_{X/S}(c_i) = a_i$ instead. This doesn't interrupt my understanding of the whole Lemma, but seems strange.
Aug 1, 2022 at 22:24 comment added kindasorta Brilliant answer, thank you so much! You've made this extremely clear, that's amazing.
Aug 1, 2022 at 22:20 vote accept kindasorta
Aug 1, 2022 at 18:40 history answered skd CC BY-SA 4.0