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Jul 31, 2022 at 18:09 vote accept Sascha
Jul 31, 2022 at 16:18 answer added Antoine Labelle timeline score: 5
Jul 31, 2022 at 15:00 comment added Michael Engelhardt @FredHucht - if it weren't for that factor $i$ in front of $A+A^T $, which completely changes things ... but if we leave out the factor $i$, the matrix is Hermitean, and the eigenvalues real, so the claimed property again can't arise ...
Jul 31, 2022 at 14:54 comment added Michael Engelhardt The new factor 2 in front of $B$ makes things rather more pathological: For $N=2$ and $N=4$, the matrices now are deficient, consisting of $2\times 2$ Jordan blocks, all with eigenvalue 0; so yes, in a trivial sense, you could say that, if 0 is an eigenvalue, also $e^{i\pi /2} 0$ is an eigenvalue. For $N=3$, the eigenvalues are nonzero, and the claimed property doesn't (and can't) hold.
Jul 31, 2022 at 14:33 comment added Fred Hucht Related? mathoverflow.net/questions/426279
Jul 31, 2022 at 13:46 comment added Sascha @MichaelEngelhardt sorry there was a 2 missing in front of $B$, now it should be fine.
Jul 31, 2022 at 13:45 history edited Sascha CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 31, 2022 at 2:36 comment added Michael Engelhardt This property of the eigenvalues does not seem to hold for $N=2$, $N=3$ or $N=4$ (I haven't tried any higher). Of course, for $N=2$ or $N=3$, this can only be true if all eigenvalues are zero (but they aren't). For $N=4$, I had some hope, but alas, no: The eigenvalues are $i\sqrt{3} $, $-i\sqrt{3} $, $0$, $0$.
Jul 30, 2022 at 12:02 history edited Sascha CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 30, 2022 at 10:25 history asked Sascha CC BY-SA 4.0