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Jul 18, 2022 at 18:07 comment added Hvjurthuk @LSpice An analytic map $f\colon\mathbb{C}\to\mathbb{C}$ can be extended through its Taylor expansion to a map $f\colon\mathcal{M}_{n}(\mathbb{C})\to\mathcal{M}_{n}(\mathbb{C})$ for any $n$. So I mean that this extension and the map $h\colon\mathcal{M}_{m}(\mathbb{C})\to\mathcal{M}_{m}(\mathbb{C})$ are inverse maps. But I also accept answers that do not verify this or that do not come from extensions of analytic functions to matrices since the main thing is the condition for $g$.
S Jul 18, 2022 at 18:02 history suggested Samuel Adrian Antz CC BY-SA 4.0
Fixed missing r in \operatorname in title.
Jul 18, 2022 at 17:43 review Suggested edits
S Jul 18, 2022 at 18:02
Jul 18, 2022 at 17:43 comment added LSpice What does "the matrix extension of the map $f$ and the map $h$" mean?
Jul 18, 2022 at 17:42 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
Undefined macro in title
Jul 18, 2022 at 17:37 history asked Hvjurthuk CC BY-SA 4.0