Timeline for What is the finite-temperature orthogonal/symplectic Tracy-Widom distribution?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Sep 5, 2022 at 7:51 | vote | accept | LeechLattice | ||
| S Jul 15, 2022 at 23:17 | history | suggested | Leonid Petrov | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
removed custom command for Airy functions
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| Jul 15, 2022 at 21:54 | answer | added | Leonid Petrov | timeline score: 2 | |
| Jul 15, 2022 at 21:38 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Jul 15, 2022 at 23:17 | |||||
| Jul 15, 2022 at 20:43 | comment | added | LSpice |
Your macro \Ai is undefined.
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| Jul 15, 2022 at 19:11 | comment | added | LeechLattice | @CarloBeenakker The quantum-mechanical interpretation is my justification of the word "temperature"; I believe there are other interpretations of $F_2$ with $F_1$/$F_4$ counterparts that can be deformed into nonzero temperature. | |
| Jul 15, 2022 at 19:00 | comment | added | Carlo Beenakker | I don't quite understand the question; you ask about finite temperatures, but even at zero temperature it is only the $\beta=2$ GUE that has the quantum mechanical interpretation in terms of the many-body wave function of free fermions; the orthogonal or symplectic ensembles have no such interpretation, so why would going to nonzero temperature change that? | |
| Jul 15, 2022 at 18:48 | history | asked | LeechLattice | CC BY-SA 4.0 |