Timeline for Chow ring of an affine line with a double origin
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
16 events
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| Dec 5, 2022 at 3:11 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
| Aug 7, 2022 at 3:01 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
| Jul 8, 2022 at 2:37 | history | edited | Yuhang Chen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 312 characters in body
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| Jul 8, 2022 at 2:13 | history | edited | Yuhang Chen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Changed $p_1$ and $p_2$ to origins instead of closed points of degree one
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| Jul 7, 2022 at 14:06 | answer | added | Jason Starr | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jul 7, 2022 at 12:43 | history | edited | Yuhang Chen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Removed an incorrect computation. Added the definition of Chow ring.
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| Jul 7, 2022 at 12:29 | history | edited | Yuhang Chen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
deleted 213 characters in body
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| Jul 7, 2022 at 1:47 | answer | added | Yuhang Chen | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jul 6, 2022 at 21:01 | comment | added | Yuhang Chen | @JasonStarr It's the one in Fulton's book "Intersection Theory". I don't know the definition used by Grothendieck. Can you give a reference? Is the difference in the rational equivalence or the intersection product? | |
| Jul 6, 2022 at 17:40 | comment | added | Jason Starr | @Johan What do you get? To the OP, what definition of Chow ring do you use? Be aware: the definition in Fulton’s textbook is different than the definition that Grothendieck used (this is most evident for nonreduced schemes). | |
| Jul 6, 2022 at 16:11 | comment | added | Evgeny Shinder | I suppose by applying the automorphis $x \mapsto x + c$ we can assume that $p_1 = p_2 = 0$. Then it should be the same result as over algebraically closed field with the same proof. | |
| Jul 6, 2022 at 14:34 | comment | added | Yuhang Chen | @EvgenyShinder You are right. I edited the question. The two points $p_1$ and $p_2$ are both closed of degree one, but they are not the "same" point as they belong to two different affine lines. | |
| Jul 6, 2022 at 14:25 | history | edited | Yuhang Chen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 48 characters in body
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| Jul 6, 2022 at 13:48 | comment | added | Johan | I get something else. | |
| Jul 6, 2022 at 10:26 | comment | added | Evgeny Shinder | Probably you mean that $A_0(X) = 0$, and $A_1(X) = \mathbf{Z}$ (it's not a zero ring). For your $X$, you need to specify an isomorphism between $V_1$ and $V_2$; if $p_1$ and $p_2$ is the same closed point on both, the same argument as in the algebraically closed case should work. If $p_1$ and $p_2$ are different points (especially, with different residue fields) it's not clear what the gluing between $V_1$ and $V_2$ is. | |
| Jul 6, 2022 at 6:25 | history | asked | Yuhang Chen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |