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Jun 30, 2022 at 7:11 comment added user478657 Many thanks for the answer. Indeed I meant this counterexample for the case where $f_n$ is non-decreasing (with a mistake in my statement), but obviously your example is still adapted
Jun 30, 2022 at 7:09 vote accept CommunityBot
Jun 29, 2022 at 21:36 comment added Iosif Pinelis @Philo18 : No, there is no typo here: $1(t<1)$ is right-continuous in $t$.
Jun 29, 2022 at 20:36 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 29, 2022 at 20:29 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 29, 2022 at 20:20 comment added user478492 It seems to me that there is one more typo. The limit is denoted by $\hat f(t):=1_{\{t<1\}}$. As for $f$, it is the right-continuous modification of $\hat f$, which means $f(t):=1_{\{t\le 1\}}$
Jun 29, 2022 at 20:15 comment added Iosif Pinelis @Philo18 : yes; this is now corrected. Thank you for your comment.
Jun 29, 2022 at 20:13 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 29, 2022 at 20:12 comment added user478492 Is the limit given as $f(t):=1_{\{t<1\}}$?
Jun 29, 2022 at 20:01 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 29, 2022 at 19:55 history answered Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0