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Jun 27, 2022 at 13:00 comment added Nate River I believe I have proven the $L^1$ convergence desired. Will write it up sometime…
Jun 27, 2022 at 4:28 answer added Nate River timeline score: 0
Jun 26, 2022 at 20:52 answer added Christophe Leuridan timeline score: 1
Jun 26, 2022 at 14:12 comment added Martin Hairer Got you, I thought $\epsilon$ was just a superscript (as it is for $\mathbb{P}^\epsilon$ in the same expression), not an actual exponent...
Jun 26, 2022 at 13:18 comment added Nate River Well $X \approx \text{exp}(1/\varepsilon)$, so $X^\varepsilon \approx e$ right?
Jun 26, 2022 at 12:37 comment added Martin Hairer Right, but if $\epsilon \log X \approx 1$, then $X \approx \exp(1/\epsilon)$, not $e$. (And the absolute error might be huge.)
Jun 26, 2022 at 12:20 history edited Nate River CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 26, 2022 at 11:55 comment added Nate River Ah yes, I guess we’re both saying the same thing. I meant to consider $\varepsilon \log X$.
Jun 26, 2022 at 10:22 comment added Martin Hairer You have to take $Y=\epsilon \log X$ for that, don’t you?
Jun 26, 2022 at 9:39 comment added Nate River Hm what happens is that, taking $Y = \log X$, we get that $|\varepsilon Y - 1| \to 0$ in probability, and so $|X^\varepsilon - e| \to 0$ also in probability. Or did I misunderstand something?
Jun 26, 2022 at 9:37 comment added Martin Hairer You missed the epsilon in the definition of $Y_\epsilon$ when trying to apply the earlier result, didn’t you?
Jun 26, 2022 at 9:22 history asked Nate River CC BY-SA 4.0