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Jun 26, 2022 at 17:01 history closed Francois Ziegler
Gerald Edgar
YCor
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Duplicate of Is formula valid for relating $\pi$ with ALL of its OEIS A002485(n)/A002486(n) convergents?
Jun 26, 2022 at 8:49 comment added David Roberts Link to a pdf of the article @Gerald cited math.ucla.edu/~vsv/resource/general/Lucas.pdf
Jun 26, 2022 at 5:30 comment added Michael Hardy $355/113$ is not just an "excellent approximation"; it is, like $22/7,$ one of the convergents in the continued fraction representation of $\pi.$ And it differse from $\pi$ by less than the reciprocal of the square of the denominator; thus by less than $1/113^2. \qquad$
Jun 25, 2022 at 22:11 review Close votes
Jun 26, 2022 at 17:05
Jun 25, 2022 at 20:29 answer added Fetchinson0234 timeline score: 5
Jun 25, 2022 at 20:17 comment added Gerald Edgar @mathworker21 ... that is also quoted at math.stackexchange.com/q/860499/44
Jun 25, 2022 at 20:13 comment added mathworker21 My favorite from the paper Gerald linked is $$\frac{355}{113}-\pi = \int_0^1 \frac{x^8(1-x)^8(25+816x^2)}{3164(1+x^2)}dx.$$
Jun 25, 2022 at 20:08 comment added Gerald Edgar S.K. Lucas, Integral proofs that $355/113>\pi$, Gazette Aust. Math. Soc. 32 (2005) 263-266. From MathSciNet: "No simple and elegant result was found."
Jun 25, 2022 at 19:34 history asked Pluviophile CC BY-SA 4.0