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Jun 19, 2022 at 14:04 vote accept Dominic van der Zypen
Jun 17, 2022 at 14:10 answer added HenrikRüping timeline score: 2
Jun 17, 2022 at 13:30 comment added YCor No (to the OP's question): indeed if $K$ is a Cantor set and $D$ is the space consisting of a converging sequence along with its limit, then $K\simeq K\times D$ (actually $K\simeq K\times L$ for every nonempty closed subset of $K$).
Jun 17, 2022 at 13:28 comment added Michael Greinecker Is there an example where this fails for other topological spaces $S$?
Jun 17, 2022 at 8:45 history edited Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 17, 2022 at 8:35 history asked Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 4.0