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Jun 20, 2022 at 11:39 comment added Joe Silverman @user47804 First, if you're going to refer people to another MO question, include it as a link. Second, Keith Conrad explained in his comment to your other question that proving that $N(p^n)=p^{n-1}N(p)$ can be done using Hensel's lemma, since in your case the your algebraic variety is smooth (i.e., non-singular) mod $p$.
Jun 20, 2022 at 0:06 comment added user47804 I have a followup question - #425072 - that might be of interest.
Jun 17, 2022 at 20:01 history edited Joe Silverman CC BY-SA 4.0
Fixed typo
Jun 16, 2022 at 22:06 history answered Joe Silverman CC BY-SA 4.0