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Jun 17, 2022 at 21:47 comment added KConrad @MarkLewko the intended question is "why the same for all units in $F$", not that the count should be independent of $F$. That is consistent with your comment (as $F$ varies).
Jun 17, 2022 at 20:37 vote accept user47804
Jun 17, 2022 at 6:05 comment added Mark Lewko Clearly, this isn't true. Consider x^2+y^2 =0. If -1 is not a square in F then this has one solution (0,0). If -1 is a square it has at least order |F| solutions of the form (a,ia), with i^2=-1. The number of solutions is well understood but depends on more than just if u is a unit. There is a rich classical theory to binary quadratic forms in finite fields.
Jun 17, 2022 at 0:51 answer added KConrad timeline score: 5
Jun 16, 2022 at 22:06 answer added Joe Silverman timeline score: 8
Jun 16, 2022 at 17:54 comment added aorq math.stackexchange.com/questions/398200/…
Jun 16, 2022 at 17:52 answer added LSpice timeline score: 5
Jun 16, 2022 at 17:30 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
Typo
Jun 16, 2022 at 17:20 history asked user47804 CC BY-SA 4.0