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Jun 16, 2022 at 12:47 comment added Gro-Tsen I suppose $\mathbb{Z}_n$ means $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$, not $n$-adics. But then why do you write $\ell^1(\mathbb{Z}_n)$ for what I suppose is just $\mathbb{C}^{\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}}$ (the $1$ is purely irrelevant, right?)? Doesn't Fourier analysis immediately show the answer to be “convolution by the inverse Fourier transform of any square root of the Fourier transform of $x$”? Is there some subtlety that I missed?
Jun 16, 2022 at 12:35 history edited ABB
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Jun 16, 2022 at 11:47 history asked ABB CC BY-SA 4.0