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Jun 15, 2022 at 20:09 vote accept Zarrax
Jun 15, 2022 at 20:05 comment added Zarrax Gotcha. While the $(c_1,..,c_n)$ coming from the critical set are excluded using Bezout, I think I have a way around that in the situation I'm looking at. Thanks.
Jun 15, 2022 at 19:54 comment added Kevin Casto Yeah, I'd worry about $e^{-1/x}$ or something similar
Jun 15, 2022 at 19:52 comment added Kevin Casto You're only applying Bezout to the preimages of $c$'s outside of $Z$, where there won't be any common components for the reason I mentioned
Jun 15, 2022 at 19:52 comment added Zarrax Basically I start with a function real analytic near the origin and I'd need a neighborhood of the origin where this would work. The neighborhood could be as small as you want though.
Jun 15, 2022 at 19:51 comment added Kevin Casto @Zarrax re:locally, depends what you want. Locally on the domain, where you can pick the nbhd after you pick the function -- sure, just pick somewhere where everything is nice. If you have to pick the point before F, I would worry about bump functions
Jun 15, 2022 at 19:48 comment added Zarrax So Bezout's theorem still gives the desired bound at points that are not in the zero set of the Jacobian? The versions of Bezout theorem I found online just didn't allow common components at all.
Jun 15, 2022 at 19:47 comment added pinaki Re: "the assumption" in Bezout's theorem, see the text of this question: mathoverflow.net/q/417812/1508
Jun 15, 2022 at 19:38 comment added Kevin Casto The Jacobian determinant will vanish at points where they have a common component. Otherwise the intersection would be codimension less than $n$ and so it couldn't be the preimage of a regular value.
Jun 15, 2022 at 19:30 history edited Kevin Casto CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 15, 2022 at 18:04 comment added Zarrax By the way, the reason I was hesitant to use Bezout's theorem is the assumption in that theorem that the zero sets have no common component, which can happen in some cases here. Are you saying there's a way around this?
Jun 15, 2022 at 17:51 comment added Zarrax Ok thanks. For the real analytic case it would have to be a local theorem. Is this possible?
Jun 15, 2022 at 17:18 comment added Kevin Casto Sorry, actually the simplest thing I can think of bounds it by the product of the degrees, which in your case would be $(n-1)^n$. I can try to think if there's a better bound in your case. It definitely does not extend to real analytic, both bc you need to switch Z to the codomain bc of bump functions, and bc there could be infinitely many preimages (consider sine)
Jun 15, 2022 at 17:15 history edited Kevin Casto CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 15, 2022 at 16:35 history edited Kevin Casto CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 15, 2022 at 16:32 comment added Zarrax Can you provide a reference for saying the size of the finite set is uniformly bounded by the degree of $F$? Also, would this extend to real analytic functions?
Jun 15, 2022 at 16:24 history undeleted Kevin Casto
Jun 15, 2022 at 16:24 history edited Kevin Casto CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 15, 2022 at 15:55 history deleted Kevin Casto via Vote
Jun 15, 2022 at 15:55 history answered Kevin Casto CC BY-SA 4.0