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Oct 16, 2010 at 23:29 comment added Theo Johnson-Freyd @Andreas Thom: Yes, I had gotten that far, and almost wrote "but necessarily not unital" where I wrote "do not demand that it is unital". I changed my mind because (1) the zero- and one-dimensional examples are unital, and (2) I hadn't come to the question yet.
Oct 16, 2010 at 22:57 answer added Todd Trimble timeline score: 10
Oct 16, 2010 at 14:30 comment added Andreas Thom If $V$ has a unit and the multiplication is an isomorphism, then $1 \otimes a = a \otimes 1$, which forces $a$ to be a multiple of $1$. I am not sure about the non-unital case, but it seems rather hopeless.
Oct 16, 2010 at 7:44 vote accept Theo Johnson-Freyd
Oct 16, 2010 at 7:37 history edited Ben Webster CC BY-SA 2.5
fixed typo
Oct 16, 2010 at 6:46 answer added S. Carnahan timeline score: 10
Oct 16, 2010 at 6:25 history asked Theo Johnson-Freyd CC BY-SA 2.5