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May 30, 2022 at 1:38 comment added Noah Schweber Ah yes, that seems right, I was overcomplicating things in my head.
May 30, 2022 at 1:30 comment added Patrick Lutz The proof in my answer implies that for $X$ and $Y$ c.e. in $A$, "$X$ is $A$-efficiently not above $Y$" is equivalent to "$Y \nleq_T X$ and $X' \leq_T A$." So I think everything should work the same if you work over $X$ and ask the same question as before using $X'$ instead of $0'$.
May 30, 2022 at 1:26 comment added Noah Schweber Yes (I corrected "efficiently" to "$X'$-efficiently" after the initial posting!).
May 30, 2022 at 1:24 comment added Patrick Lutz @NoahSchweber In the definition of "efficiently between $X$ and $Y$" do you only require the maps $F$ and $G$ to be $X'$ computable?
May 30, 2022 at 1:23 comment added Noah Schweber Possibly silly question: does "low over" work analogously to give an affirmative answer to the question, "For all c.e. $X<_TY$ there is a c.e. $Z$ such that $Z$ is $X'$-efficiently strictly between $X$ and $Y$" (apologies for brevity, hopefully it's clear what I mean there)?
May 30, 2022 at 0:59 comment added Patrick Lutz @NoahSchweber No, I thought about it a little but only enough to convince myself there is not a super straightforward answer.
May 30, 2022 at 0:55 vote accept Noah Schweber
May 30, 2022 at 0:55 comment added Noah Schweber Ah, nice! I feel a bit embarrassed in retrospect. Incidentally, do you have any ideas for my previous question about downward-density?
May 30, 2022 at 0:53 history answered Patrick Lutz CC BY-SA 4.0