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May 26, 2022 at 7:17 vote accept Dominic van der Zypen
May 25, 2022 at 22:14 comment added Asaf Karagila Thanks @Will, that makes sense!
May 25, 2022 at 22:08 comment added Will Brian Nice! Regarding your last sentence, the answer to Dominic's question is yes if $\mathfrak{a} = \mathfrak{c}$. This is because if $\mathcal M$ is a MAD family on $\mathbb N$ and $A \subseteq \mathbb N$, then either $A$ only meets finitely many members of $\mathcal M$ in an infinite set, or else the restriction of $\mathcal M$ to $A$ is a MAD family on $A$, hence of cardinality $\mathfrak{c}$. So it seems the answer to Dominic's question is yes if and only if $\mathfrak{a} = \mathfrak{c}$.
May 25, 2022 at 21:08 history answered Asaf Karagila CC BY-SA 4.0