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May 17, 2022 at 0:53 comment added paul garrett Well, in fact (google "Schwartz' Kernel Theorem") in nearly every situation operators can be described by kernels. Lots of technicalities, naturally. :) But, basically, any continuous linear map that makes sense as a map from test functions (a very tiny nice class of functions) to distributions (a pretty large class...) on $\mathbb R$ (and such) is given by a distribution on $\mathbb R^2$... which is a generalization of "kernel".
May 16, 2022 at 23:38 history edited Branimir Ćaćić CC BY-SA 4.0
The conflict with the notation $f^\prime$ for a first derivative was just too jarring.
May 16, 2022 at 23:26 comment added Kevin Ellis Thanks, I got very stuck on this when I made that assumption. Can that assumption be relaxed to solve this problem?
May 16, 2022 at 22:16 history edited Kevin Ellis CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted 14 characters in body
May 16, 2022 at 22:06 comment added paul garrett If you postulate that the transform is given by "integrating against a kernel" (a function of two variables...), you'll see that this is very difficult to arrange...
S May 16, 2022 at 21:46 review First questions
May 17, 2022 at 5:52
S May 16, 2022 at 21:46 history asked Kevin Ellis CC BY-SA 4.0