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May 17, 2022 at 20:51 history edited Nik Bren CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 16, 2022 at 19:26 history edited Nik Bren
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May 16, 2022 at 18:45 comment added Nik Bren Thanks for the piece of advice. The Hahn-Banach theorem as I know it uses sublinear functionals $f:V \to \mathbb{R}$ which are finite everywhere. The difference here is that I allow conic functions to have value $+\infty$. So, this may produce some discontinuities and I see these discontinuities as the main obstacle for this inequality to hold. See a discussion part I wrote. Nevertheless, I think you suggested an interesting track for my thoughts.
May 16, 2022 at 18:37 history edited Nik Bren CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 16, 2022 at 5:04 comment added Jochen Wengenroth Subadditive und positively homogenous function are called sublinear and feature in the Hahn-Banach theorem. Did you try to choose a linear $g\le f$ with $f(I)=g(I)$ where $I$ is the integral?
May 15, 2022 at 22:51 history asked Nik Bren CC BY-SA 4.0