Timeline for Why is $\Xi \equiv 0$ if $E=C_{0}(X \times Y)$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| May 13, 2022 at 23:22 | vote | accept | Akira | ||
| May 13, 2022 at 12:14 | comment | added | Akira | @DieterKadelka in the book $f:X \to \mathbb R$ is vanishing at infinity if $\forall \varepsilon>0, \exists K \subset X$ compact such that $|f(x)| \le \varepsilon$ for all $x \in X \setminus K$. | |
| May 13, 2022 at 12:12 | comment | added | Dieter Kadelka | The problem only is: What is "vanishing at infinity", f.i. what if $X = Y = C([0,1])? | |
| May 13, 2022 at 11:59 | comment | added | Akira | @DieterKadelka I guess to prove $\Xi \equiv 0$, it's sufficient to assume that $X,Y$ are Polish. | |
| May 13, 2022 at 11:57 | comment | added | Dieter Kadelka | Are you sure that $X$ and $Y$ are Polish only? Maybe they are locally compact too. | |
| May 13, 2022 at 11:42 | answer | added | Dirk | timeline score: 3 | |
| May 13, 2022 at 11:10 | history | asked | Akira | CC BY-SA 4.0 |