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Apr 21, 2022 at 15:48 history edited Anthony Quas CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 21, 2022 at 15:14 vote accept Aryeh Kontorovich
Apr 21, 2022 at 15:13 comment added Anthony Quas Sorry about that. The idea remains the same: $\mathbb EXY$ is an $L^2$ quantity that is much more sensitive to large changes on a small measure set than the $L^1$ quantity $\mathbb E|X-Y|$. So you can make $\mathbb E|X-Y|$ zero by making them equal. But $\mathbb E|\tilde X-\tilde Y|$ is $\Omega(1)$. Of course this doesn't give a counterexample because $\mathbb EXY$ is also $\Omega(1)$. But then you can make a perturbation that is small in $L^1$, but large in $L^2$ such that $\mathbb EXY=0$.
Apr 21, 2022 at 15:09 history edited Anthony Quas CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 21, 2022 at 13:55 comment added Aryeh Kontorovich I guess I'll make it "unaccepted" until the proof/counterexample is found?..
Apr 21, 2022 at 13:40 comment added Aryeh Kontorovich Right I see it now.
Apr 21, 2022 at 13:40 comment added Iosif Pinelis @AryehKontorovich : I think $EXY$ was OK.
Apr 21, 2022 at 13:38 comment added Aryeh Kontorovich Right. Also, I'm having trouble getting $\mathbb EXY=-pM^2+(1-p)$. I'm getting
Apr 21, 2022 at 13:34 comment added Iosif Pinelis Here $EX=pM\ne0$, whereas the OP requested zero means for $X$ and $Y$. Can this example be modified accordingly?
Apr 21, 2022 at 13:20 comment added Aryeh Kontorovich Right, that's what I figured. Well, this puts a hamper on a certain approach. Back to the drawing board...
Apr 21, 2022 at 13:17 comment added Anthony Quas I think you can scale everything without changing anything here (and truncate the normals)
Apr 21, 2022 at 13:16 comment added Aryeh Kontorovich Excellent, thank you! What if we add the additional condition that all variables are in the range $[-1,1]$?
Apr 21, 2022 at 13:15 vote accept Aryeh Kontorovich
Apr 21, 2022 at 13:55
Apr 21, 2022 at 13:13 history answered Anthony Quas CC BY-SA 4.0