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Apr 21, 2022 at 18:02 history edited Alexandre Eremenko CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 21, 2022 at 14:20 comment added Alexandre Eremenko @Manuel Eberl: I only wanted to say that $\lambda$ is a simpler function than $J$ since $\lambda$ is a universal covering, and $J$ is a ramified covering.
Apr 21, 2022 at 14:17 comment added Alexandre Eremenko @Manuel Eberl: Look at the "Zalcman's Elementary proof" in my reference. If $f$ omits $0,1,\infty$, then $f=\exp(g)$ where $g$ omits the sequence $2\pi in$. This is the beginning of Zalcman's proof.
Apr 21, 2022 at 8:54 comment added Manuel Eberl Also thanks for bringing $\lambda$ to my attention, but does all of this mean that if you want to do the proof with $J$ then you need to prove that $J$ is a covering map first? And if so, is the only way to do it the hard way, i.e. by showing explicitly that for each value in the range a corresponding disjoint union of neighbourhoods in the preimage exists?
Apr 21, 2022 at 8:53 comment added Manuel Eberl I don't understand the last comment about $\exp$ at all. Surely $\exp$ does not omit 1?
Apr 21, 2022 at 2:17 history answered Alexandre Eremenko CC BY-SA 4.0