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Apr 16, 2022 at 13:48 history edited Laithy CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 16, 2022 at 2:28 comment added Vitali Kapovitch ah, ok, sorry, I thought subindices were coordinates of a point.
Apr 16, 2022 at 2:27 comment added Laithy I am not making any other assumptions about the rest of the Ricci components. So the Ricci curvature need not be (and cannot be) pointwise constant.
Apr 16, 2022 at 2:23 comment added Laithy I mean the function ${\rm Ric}(\frac{\partial}{\partial r}, \frac{\partial}{\partial \phi})$ on $\mathbb{R}^3\setminus B_1$ is the function $\frac{\sin \theta}{r^2}$.
Apr 16, 2022 at 2:20 comment added Vitali Kapovitch what exactly do you mean by the equality ${\rm Ric}_{r\phi} = \frac{\sin\theta}{r^2}$? that Ricci curvature is pointwise constant? then the answer is No by Schur's Lemma.
Apr 15, 2022 at 21:38 history edited Laithy CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 15, 2022 at 21:11 history asked Laithy CC BY-SA 4.0