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Sep 10 at 18:04 comment added Dominic van der Zypen In ZF, we have that $x\leq y$ implies $x \leq^* y$: if $x\neq \emptyset$ and $x\leq y$, fix $a_0\in x$. Let $f:x\to y$ be an injection. Consider the set $\{(b, a): a\in x, b\in y, f(a) = y\}\cup \{(z,a_0): z\in y \setminus \text{im}(f)\}$. This provides a surjection $g:y\to x$, so $x\leq^* y$. - What is open, is whether the implication $x\leq^*y \implies x\leq y$ is a theorem of ZF.
Sep 10 at 12:20 comment added Juan Atacama @DominicvanderZypen I assume you meant the implication $x \leq y$ implies $x \leq^* y$.
Apr 14, 2022 at 9:37 comment added Dominic van der Zypen Apologies for a) misusing the "beg" term and b) missing Higasikawa's paper
Apr 13, 2022 at 21:38 history became hot network question
Apr 13, 2022 at 20:57 comment added Asaf Karagila While we're making remarks, begthequestion.info
Apr 13, 2022 at 20:16 vote accept Dominic van der Zypen
Apr 13, 2022 at 18:55 comment added Elliot Glazer It’s not open, WPP (and thus CB*) implies DC, see Higasikawa’s Partition Principles paper.
Apr 13, 2022 at 13:56 answer added Asaf Karagila timeline score: 8
Apr 13, 2022 at 13:37 history asked Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 4.0