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Apr 14, 2022 at 8:24 answer added D.-C. Cisinski timeline score: 3
Apr 14, 2022 at 6:42 vote accept Leo Herr
Apr 13, 2022 at 17:51 comment added Marc Hoyois The answer to Q2 is yes, since the determinant factors through K-theory (see for example mathoverflow.net/a/371119/20233).
Apr 13, 2022 at 10:23 answer added Leo Alonso timeline score: 4
Apr 12, 2022 at 20:24 comment added R. van Dobben de Bruyn As you're probably aware, a 'trivial' case is when both $f \colon X \to Y$ and $g \colon Y \to Z$ are flat (and separated and of finite type); see [Tag 0E30]. This is reasonable given that, in that case, $\omega_{X/Y} = f^!(\mathcal O_Y)$, and similarly for $g$ [Tag 0E9W].
Apr 12, 2022 at 20:07 history asked Leo Herr CC BY-SA 4.0